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End Life


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Keywords: End Life
Date: 27.01.2009 21:57
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Added by: DarkSoul

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Join Date: 23.09.2015
Comments: 252

Remember I asked if we could agree to answer each others questions in the last post before going forward with other points? This encourages questions and getting clarity from each other.

Instead of jumping to conclusions due to not carefully reading what I wrote, you could have asked questions.

So if I’m right, you think sexual immorality does not include premarital sex, and you think fornication includes everything sexual immorality includes plus premarital sex. BUT, (I think) you believe that in Matt 5:32 etc, because there are no “helping words”, it must mean premarital sex.

A little mixed up. To my mind (and scholars that I’ve read who specifically include examples) sexual immorality includes premarital sex. Fornication, on the other hand, emphasises premarital sex – at least as it’s used today. Again, that is why scholars prefer to translate porneia as “sexual immorality”.

I would really be ignorant to think that the very broad term ‘sexual immorality’ does not include premarital sex. I never said anything that suggested that I don’t have that basic understanding. For me to lack that basic understanding is about as bad as thinking that swimming doesn’t involve getting wet.

This is what I wrote:

The word fornication (or porneai) by itself alone, without any accompanying helper words, has a special premarital application that the term “sexual immorality” does not possess.

Notice I said it has a special premarital application. I gave examples how with helper words, the word fornication can be made to apply to other various forms of sexual immorality. It is just that alone, without helper words, it has a unique available application to the premarital sexual sin that the term “sexual immorality”, alone, does not enjoy. In order for ‘sexual immorality’ to pertain to the premarital sin exclusively, some context or helper words are required. I think you may have inadvertantly admitted that the reason why scholars “prefer” to translate porneia is because of its potential to be associated to the premarital sexual sin. In order to prevent any confusion that fornication can somehow be rendered as pertaining to the premarital sexual sin in 5:32, they have resorted to paraphrasing it with a term that does not have within itself, alone, the potential to be applicable to the premarital sexual sin. Isn’t that the underlying basis for that “preference”? That would be a classic circular reasoning. Assuming as a matter of absolute fact that fornication in Matt 5 and 19 is a reference to post marital sexual sin (due to assuming that “husband” and “wife” and “divorce” HAVE to always pertain to the post marital couple) then to avoid anyone making the ‘mistake’ of supposing that ‘fornication’ in Matt 5:32 and 19:9 can somehow relate to only the premarital situation; in that confidence they do “service” to God and change it to eliminate that potential “misunderstanding”. You said, that is why scholars prefer that rendering. Can you explain more clearly the reasoning why? What reasons from scriptural use compel the switch from fornication to “sexual
16.08.2018 21:19 Offline wq1234

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